Kiddushin 50 - October 2, 17 Tishrei

Today's daf is sponsored by Elana Kermaier in loving memory of her father Moshe Fox z"l, Moshe Yehuda ben haRav Binyamin v'Chaya Tzipora on his sixth yahrzeit. "Your love of nature and the outdoors made Sukkot your favorite holiday. We so much miss celebrating this chag with you in our Sukkah.". Today's daf is sponsored by Ron and Shira Krebs in loving memory of Shira's mother, Batya Rachel bat Yakov v'Rivkah, Brenda Katz, on her first yahrzeit. If one sells a house with the intent to move to Israel but does not mention it as a condition of the sale and the move to Israel does not work out, can one cancel the sale of the house? Rava rules that "matters of the heart are not considered matters" and therefore the sale cannot be canceled. The sages bring five different sources to bring a source for this principle but the first four suggestions are rejected. Eventually, it is proven from a Mishna in Meila 6:1. A few other cases are mentioned regarding one who sold his house with the intent to move to Israel - in one case, he moved but then moved back as it didn't work out and in another, he never moved. In the first case, Rava ruled and in the second, Rav Ashi ruled, but there were two different versions regarding each of the rulings. If a man appoints an agent to betroth his wife in a specific location, the betrothal is only effective if the agent does exactly as he was told. But if the man tells the agent to betroth her and specifies where the agent can find her, if he finds her somewhere else and betroths her there, the betrothal is effective. Why does this need to be specified here by betrothal and also in Gittin regarding marriage? If a man betroths a woman with a condition that she does not have vows she has taken upon herself or blemishes and she in fact does, the betrothal is ineffective. But if he did not betroth her with that condition and yet finds out once betrothed that she has vows or blemishes, he can divorce her without having to give her the ketuba money. If a betrothal takes place but the husband does not do it with the value of a pruta and then later sends gifts that were traditionally sent to the bride's family after betrothal (sovlonot) to her house, the betrothal is ineffective as we assume the gifts were not meant for kiddushin. The Mishna lists three different types of cases where sending gifts would be ineffective - what is unique about each of the three cases that warranted each being mentioned? If the man only sent gifts (without a betrothal), do we need to be concerned that perhaps it was sent with the intent to betroth (or that there must have already been a betrothal - otherwise, why would he be sending the gifts)? Rav Huna and Raba hold that she is considered betrothed by safek (out of doubt) and will require a get before getting married to someone else. Two versions are brought about a discussion Raba and Abaye have regarding this ruling - in each version one supports and one disagrees. What does the Gemara conclude regarding this case? If one finds a ketuba of a woman in the marketplace and it is not known that she was betrothed, do we need to be strict and assume she must have been betrothed? On what does it depend? If one betrothed two women at the same time who are both forbidden to him on account of each other, such as a woman and her sister or a woman and her mother, neither betrothal is effective.